• No products in the cart.

AIAPGET 2018 – Questions with answer key


Q. No.: 101 – Muscles forming boundaries of digastric triangle are all except
Options:
1) Anterior belly of digastric
2) Posterior belly of digastric
3) Stylohyoid
4) Sternocleidomastoid
Correct Answer: 4) Sternocleidomastoid
Q. No. : 102 – Which of the following area is known as the dangerous area of the scalp
Options:
1) Skin
2) Superficial Fascia
3) Deep Fascia
4) Loose Areolar Tissue
Correct Answer: 4) Loose Areolar Tissue
Q. No. : 103 – A person was unable to close his right eye. There is dribbling of saliva from
right angle of his mouth and he in unable to make a pout. The probable diagnosis is
Options:
1) Bell’s Palsy
2) Trigeminal Neuralgia
3) Optic Nerve Injury
4) Oculomotor Nerve Injury
Correct Answer: 1) Bell’s Palsy
Q. No. : 104 – Radiographic ‘Shenton’s Line’ is observed in respect of which joint
Options:
1) Hip Joint
2) Knee Joint
3) Shoulder Joint
4) Elbow Joint
Correct Answer: 1) Hip Joint
Q. No. : 105 – Ketone bodies are utilized by all tissues except
Options:
1) Liver
2) Muscle
3) Heart
4) Kidney
Correct Answer: 1) Liver
Q. No. : 106 – The most abundant protein in the body is
Options:
1) Albumin
2) Globulin
3) Collagen
4) Fibrinogen
Correct Answer: 3) Collagen
Q. No. : 107 – Which of the following is the most universally accepted and sensitive
indicator of the whole population and the socio-economic condition under which they live
Options:
1) Disability Rate
2) Infant Mortality Rate
3) Under-5 Proportionate Mortality Rate
4) Life Expectancy
Correct Answer: 2) Infant Mortality Rate
Q. No. : 108 – Which of the following characteristic should be considered most important
while applying a screening test in lethal disease like cancer
Options:
1) Sensitivity
2) Specificity
3) Simplicity
4) Rapidity
Correct Answer: 1) Sensitivity
Q. No. : 109 – Which one among the following is not considered as millet
Options:
1) Jowar
2) Bajra
3) Maize
4) Ragi
Correct Answer: 3) Maize
Q. No. : 110 – Out of the following, which is the most ideal time for insertion of an intra
uterine contraceptive device?
Options:
1) Immediate post-partum i.e. within first week of delivery
2) Post-puerperal i.e. 6-8 weeks after delivery
3) Immediately after second trimester legal abortion
4) During last week of menstrual cycle
Correct Answer: 2) Post-puerperal i.e. 6-8 weeks after delivery
Q. No. : 111 – Most reliable method of identification of a person is
Options:
1) Galton method
2) Gustafson method
3) Anthropometry
4) Scars
Correct Answer: 1) Galton method
Q. No. : 112 – Flaying is seen in which type of laceration
Options:
1) Split
2) Avulsion
3) Tear
4) Stretch
Correct Answer: 2) Avulsion
Q. No. : 113 – ‘Absence of pain, where it could be expected’ is a noticeable feature of
Options:
1) Antim crud.
2) Aconite
3) Coffea
4) Baptisia
Correct Answer: 1) Antim crud.
Q. No. : 114 – “Cool sweat on the face, especially around the mouth and nose” is a feature
of
Options:
1) Chamomilla
2) Rheum
3) Opium
4) Natrum mur.
Correct Answer: 2) Rheum
Q. No. : 115 – A Patient complains of ‘Beating of pulses throughout the body, especially in
the right thigh’. The remedy indicated for this patient is
Options:
1) Belladonna
2) Glonoine
3) Baryta mur.
4) Veratrum viride
Correct Answer: 4) Veratrum viride
Q. No. : 116 – According to J.T. Kent, which remedy is especially indicated in those
persons who manifest momentary fleeting inquisitiveness, jumping from one subject to
another
Options:
1) Aethusa cynapium
2) Ambra grisea
3) Petroleum
4) Silicea
Correct Answer: 2) Ambra grisea
Q. No. : 117 – “Cannot bear to be touched, starts when touched ever so lightly, especially
on the feet” is a feature of
Options:
1) Lachesis
2) Lycopodium
3) Medorrhinum
4) Kali carb.
Correct Answer: 4) Kali carb.
Q. No. : 118 – In a patient suffering from ARCUS SENILIS, which Chapter of Kent’s
repertory needs to be referred to find medicines specifically covering this pathology.
Options:
1) Eye
2) Vision
3) Generalities
4) Head
Correct Answer: 1) Eye
Q. No. : 119 – Which of the following concept is Fundamental basis of Boenninghausen’s
Therepeutic Pocket Book.
Options:
1) Doctrine of Tautopathy
2) Doctrine of Pathological General
3) Doctrine of Analogy
4) Doctrine of Nosodotherapy
Correct Answer: 3) Doctrine of Analogy
Q. No. : 120 – ‘Wraps up in Fur in summers’ is found in which chapter of Kent’s Repertory
Options:
1) Mind
2) Extremities
3) Fever
4) Generalities
Correct Answer: 1) Mind
Q. No. : 121 –
Options:
1) i-a, ii-c, iii-b
2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c
3) i-b, ii-a, iii-c
4) i-c, ii-b, iii-a
Correct Answer: 1) i-a, ii-c, iii-b
Q. No. : 122 – The only remedy for Rubric “BESEECHING” in mind section of BBCR is
Options:
1) Arsenic Alb
2) Belladonna
3) Stramonium
4) Lachesis
Correct Answer: 3) Stramonium
Q. No. : 123 – No flatus emitted upward or downward, especially after abdominal
operation, is a feature of
Options:
1) Anacardium
2) Bryonia
3) Carbo veg.
4) Raphanus
Correct Answer: 4) Raphanus
Q. No. : 124 –
Options:
1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
Correct Answer: 1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
Q. No. : 125 –
Options:
1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
Correct Answer: 1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Q. No. : 126 – The most common position of vertex at the time of engagement is
Options:
1) Left Occipito transverse
2) Right Occipito transverse
3) Left Occipito-anterior
4) Right Occipito-anterior
Correct Answer: 1) Left Occipito transverse
Q. No. : 127 – Which of the following does not physiologically increase in pregnancy
Options:
1) Stroke Volume
2) Cardiac output
3) Intravascular Volume
4) Blood Pressure
Correct Answer: 4) Blood Pressure
Q. No. : 128 – Pseudocyesis includes the following features except
Options:
1) Distension of abdomen
2) hCG levels double every 72 hours
3) Amenorrhoea
4) Morning Sickness
Correct Answer: 2) hCG levels double every 72 hours
Q. No. : 129 – Lovset maneuver in breech presentation is meant to facilitate delivery of
Options:
1) Aftercoming head
2) Feet
3) Arms and shoulders
4) Trunk
Correct Answer: 3) Arms and shoulders
Q. No. : 130 – In uterine prolapse, decubitus ulcer is caused by
Options:
1) Acute inflammation
2) Malignant Changes
3) Friction
4) Venous Congestion
Correct Answer: 4) Venous Congestion
Q. No. : 131 – Which of the following is characteristic radiological sign of Intra-uterine
fetal death
Options:
1) Spalding’s sign
2) Moses sign
3) Dequervain’s Sign
4) Chvostek sign
Correct Answer: 1) Spalding’s sign
Q. No. : 132 – Placenta secretes all the hormones except
Options:
1) HCG
2) Prolactin
3) Estrogen
4) Human Placental Lactogen
Correct Answer: 2) Prolactin
Q. No. : 133 – Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding Krukenberg tumors
Options:
1) They are primary ovarian carcinomas that always secondarily metastasize to
Gastrointestinal organs
2) They are almost invariably bilateral
3) There is no infiltration through the capsule
4) They are freely movable in pelvis
Correct Answer: 1) They are primary ovarian carcinomas that always secondarily
metastasize to Gastrointestinal organs
Q. No. : 134 – Which one of the following type of chronic disease was considered by
Hahnemann as most deplorable and most incurable
Options:
1) Artificial Chronic diseases
2) Pseudo chronic diseases
3) Epidemic diseases
4) True chronic miasmatic diseases
Correct Answer: 1) Artificial Chronic diseases
Q. No. : 135 – In remedy reaction, where the aggravation is quick, short and strong with
rapid improvement of patient, inference is all except
Options:
1) There are no structural changes
2) Disease is of superficial nature
3) Disease has not severely affected vital organs
4) Changes are comparable to changes in deeper organs
Correct Answer: 4) Changes are comparable to changes in deeper organs
Q. No. : 136 – The second edition of Organon was published at
Options:
1) Paris
2) Leipzig
3) Koethen
4) Boston
Correct Answer: 2) Leipzig
Q. No. : 137 – Psychological counselling of a patient that relieves suffering brought upon
by psychological exciting factor was designated by Hahnemann as
Options:
1) Cryotherapy
2) Iatrogenesis
3) Moral Remedy
4) Tautopathy
Correct Answer: 3) Moral Remedy
Q. No. : 138 – The Fundamental law of Palliation in Homoeopathic treatment of Incurable
disease condition is
Options:
1) Law of Similars
2) Aequalia Aequalibus Curentur
3) Contraria Contraris Curentur
4) Enantiopathy
Correct Answer: 1) Law of Similars
Q. No. : 139 – According to Stuart Close, the Second best remedy is
Options:
1) Antipathic Medicine
2) Sulphur in Higher Dynamisation
3) Saccharum Lactis Officinalis
4) Vitamin Supplement
Correct Answer: 3) Saccharum Lactis Officinalis
Q. No. : 140 – The peculiarity of Homeopathic treatment of PRIMARY Stage of PSORA is
that it demands
Options:
1) Specific Remedy In Large Doses
2) Surgical Intervention
3) Local Application
4) Nosodotherapy
Correct Answer: 1) Specific Remedy In Large Doses
Q. No. : 141 – According to Hahnemann, which scale of potency is capable of producing
medicines of highest development of power and mildest action
Options:
1) Straight Potency
2) Jumping Potency
3) Decimal Stale of Potency
4) Fifty Millesimal Scale of Potency
Correct Answer: 4) Fifty Millesimal Scale of Potency
Q. No. : 142 – “Coldness with aversion to being covered” is an example of
Options:
1) Mental General
2) Kent’s Particular Symptom
3) Garthe Boericke’s Basic Symptom
4) Negative General Symptom
Correct Answer: 4) Negative General Symptom
Q. No. : 143 – “Sudden Fainting from least smell of cooking oil “ is an example of
Options:
1) Local Disease
2) Intermittent Disease
3) Surrogates
4) Idiosyncrasy
Correct Answer: 4) Idiosyncrasy
Q. No. : 144 – Which of the following article of Hahnemann is considered as precursor of
ORGANON
Options:
1) The Friends of Health
2) The Medicine of Experience
3) The Medical Observer
4) Cure and Prevention of Asiatic Cholera
Correct Answer: 2) The Medicine of Experience
Q. No. : 145 – H.A. Robert’s concept of “DEFLECTED CURRENT” Signifies
Options:
1) Electrocution
2) Magnetism
3) Obstacle to Cure
4) Galvanism
Correct Answer: 3) Obstacle to Cure
Q. No. : 146 – Hahnemann conceived idea of Cinchona bark experiment during the
translation of
Options:
1) Monroe’s “Materia Medica”
2) Cullen’s “Treatise on Materia Medica”
3) Lewin’s “Secondary Effects of Remedies”
4) Herings “Guiding Symptoms of Materia Medica”
Correct Answer: 2) Cullen’s “Treatise on Materia Medica”
Q. No. : 147 –
Options:
1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c
2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a,
3) i-c, ii-a, iii-b,
4) i-a, ii-c, iii-b,
Correct Answer: 3) i-c, ii-a, iii-b,
Q. No. : 148 – The method used for preparing tincture from the mucilaginous and gummy
substances from vegetable or animal kingdom is
Options:
1) Distillation
2) Sublimation
3) Maceration
4) Crystallisation
Correct Answer: 3) Maceration
Q. No. : 149 – Who introduced the Decimal Scale of potency
Options:
1) Dr S. Hahnemann
2) Dr C. Hering
3) Dr H.A. Robert
4) Dr J.T. Kent
Correct Answer: 2) Dr C. Hering
Q. No. : 150 – Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Sugar of milk
Options:
1) It is odourless
2) It is milky white
3) It is soluble in alcohol
4) It is an important solid vehicle
Correct Answer: 3) It is soluble in alcohol
Q. No. : 151 – Cones are prepared from
Options:
1) Milk Sugar
2) Mixture of Glucose and distilled water
3) Mixture of Cane Sugar and Egg albumin
4) Dextrose
Correct Answer: 3) Mixture of Cane Sugar and Egg albumin
Q. No. : 152 – Which part of the plant of Cinchona officinalis is used for its preparation
Options:
1) Bark
2) Stem with leaves
3) Roots
4) Whole plant
Correct Answer: 1) Bark
Q. No. : 153 – The principal site of peripheral resistance in circulation is
Options:
1) Large arteries
2) Arterioles
3) Capillaries
4) Veins
Correct Answer: 2) Arterioles
Q. No. : 154 – The rise in basal body temperature at the time of ovulation is because of
Options:
1) Decreased estrogen
2) Increased Progesterone
3) Decreased Leutinizing hormone
4) Increased Follicular Stimulating hormone
Correct Answer: 2) Increased Progesterone
Q. No. : 155 – An 11 year old girl presents with the following complaints
(1) Difficulty in climbing upstairs and combing her hair
(2) Maculopapular rash over MCP joints
(3) Gower’s sign Positive. The most appropriate investigation to be advised is
Options:
1) ESR
2) Creatine Kinase
3) RA Factor
4) ANA antibodies test
Correct Answer: 2) Creatine Kinase
Q. No. : 156 – All are features of scurvy except
Options:
1) Bitot’s spots
2) Sub periosteal bleeding
3) Follicular hyperkeratosis
4) Cork screw hair
Correct Answer: 1) Bitot’s spots
Q. No. : 157 – DIC can occur in all of the following except
Options:
1) Placenta Praevia
2) Haemophilia
3) Falciparum Malaria
4) Snake Bite
Correct Answer: 2) Haemophilia
Q. No. : 158 – The liver enzyme which is sensitive indicator of liver cell injury and is most
helpful in recognizing acute hepatocellular diseases is
Options:
1) Alkaline Phosphatase
2) Aspartate aminotransferase
3) Gamma glutamyl Transpeptidase
4) Creatine Phosphokinase
Correct Answer: 2) Aspartate aminotransferase
Q. No. : 159 – Which of these conditions will be associated with steatorrhea.
Options:
1) Primary lactase deficiency
2) Pernicious anemia
3) Ulcerative colitis
4) Chronic Pancreatitis
Correct Answer: 4) Chronic Pancreatitis
Q. No. : 160 – The Spirometry finding found during episodes of Bronchial Asthma is
Options:
1) Marked reduction in FVC
2) Normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio
3) Marked reduction in FEV1
4) Increased peak expiratory Flow
Correct Answer: 3) Marked reduction in FEV1
Q. No. : 161 – Following observations were made during examination of a newborn child.
On the basis of given observations, ascertain the APGAR score
(1) Newborn makes grimaces on stimulation of sole of the Foot.
(2) Respiration slow & irregular
(3) Heart rate – 90/min
(4) There was some flexion of the limbs
(5) Color of the body was pink
Options:
1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8
Correct Answer: 2) 6
Q. No. : 162 – A middle aged female presented with following symptoms – Hirsutism,
fragility of skin, with easy bruising, broad purplish striae and signs of proximal myopathy.
The first step in confirming the diagnosis will be
Options:
1) Advice 24 hours urinary free cortisol excretion
2) Exclude exogenous Glucocorticoid use
3) Advice plasma ACTH estimation
4) Advice dexamethasone overnight test
Correct Answer: 2) Exclude exogenous Glucocorticoid use
Q. No. : 163 – Pretibial myxedema is a feature of
Options:
1) Diabetes mellitus
2) Hypothyroidism
3) Grave’s Disease
4) Malignancy
Correct Answer: 3) Grave’s Disease
Q. No. : 164 – Which of the following statement(s) about epileptic seizure is/are correct
(1)“Jacksonian march” represents spread of seizure activity over motor cortex
(2) Focal seizures of temporal cortex cause psychic symptoms
(3) Typical absence seizures are followed by post ictal confusion
(4) Epilepsia partialis continua may continue for hours or days
Options:
1) 1, 2 and 4
2) 3 and 4
3) 1 and 4
4) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: 1) 1, 2 and 4
Q. No. : 165 – Myasthenia Gravis is characterized by
Options:
1) Decrease in acetylcholine reserve in motor nerve terminal
2) Decrease in dopamine reserve in motor nerve terminal
3) Decrease in receptors for acetylcholine
4) Decrease in dopamine receptors
Correct Answer: 3) Decrease in receptors for acetylcholine
Q. No. : 166 – How many medicines were added by Dr. T.F Allen in the section of
Relationship of Remedies of Therapeutic Pocket Book.
Options:
1) 20
2) 21
3) 148
4) 220
Correct Answer: 2) 21
Q. No. : 167 – The first edition of the Homeopathic Therapeutics of Diarrhoea by J.B Bell
was published in Year
Options:
1) 1869
2) 1879
3) 1881
4) 1882
Correct Answer: 1) 1869
Q. No. : 168 – Which of following statement is not correct for rubric ‘Pulse’.
Options:
1) In Kent’s Repertory, Pulse is given in Generalities
2) In BBCR, Pulse is given in Circulation
3) In TPB, Pulse is given in Sensation
4) In Knerr’s Repertory, Pulse is given as separate chapter
Correct Answer: 3) In TPB, Pulse is given in Sensation
Q. No. : 169 – Which of following statement is not Correct.
Options:
1) Gentry repertory has 420 medicines
2) In Knerr’s Repertory, Sensorium chapter is given
3) Boericke repertory has 2 gradation
4) Emergency conditions chapter is given in Knerr’s Repertory
Correct Answer: 4) Emergency conditions chapter is given in Knerr’s Repertory
Q. No. : 170 – Who introduced gradation of remedies in Repertory.
Options:
1) Dr. Cipher
2) Dr. Boenninghausen
3) Dr. Jahr
4) Dr. Lippe
Correct Answer: 2) Dr. Boenninghausen
Q. No. : 171 – ‘Abscess in perineum’ is given in which chapter of Kent’s Repertory
Options:
1) Genitalia
2) Skin
3) Generalities
4) Rectum
Correct Answer: 4) Rectum
Q. No. : 172 – Which of the following chapter of Kent’s Repertory did not show the
alphabetic arrangement of rubrics.
Options:
1) Cough
2) Hearing
3) Prostate
4) Vision
Correct Answer: 1) Cough
Q. No. : 173 – In which of the following chapter of Kent’s Repertory of Homoeopathic
Materia Medica, you will NOT find the rubric ‘Aphthae’.
Options:
1) Face
2) Mouth
3) Genitalia – Female
4) Generalities
Correct Answer: 4) Generalities
Q. No. : 174 – Which of following statement is incorrect according to BBCR Repertory
Options:
1) Radiating pain is given under Sensation & Complaints in General
2) Typhoid fever is given under Fever – Pathological types
3) Pregnancy is given under Sexual Impulse
4) Tetters is given in Skin & Exterior body
Correct Answer: 3) Pregnancy is given under Sexual Impulse
Q. No. : 175 – Rubric for ‘Abortion’ is given in which of following chapter of Therapeutic
Pocket Book
Options:
1) Sexual organ
2) Leucorrhoea
3) Menstruation
4) Sensation
Correct Answer: 3) Menstruation
Q. No. : 176 – In which of following Dr. Boenninghausen’s repertory, Dr. Samuel
Hahnemann has given introduction on the Repetition of Homoeopathic medicines
Options:
1) A Cure of cholera & its preventatives
2) A Systematic alphabetic Repertory of Homoeopathic Remedies
3) Attempt at Homoeopathic Therapy of Intermittent fever
4) Attempt at showing Relative kinship of Homeopathic medicines
Correct Answer: 2) A Systematic alphabetic Repertory of Homoeopathic Remedies
Q. No. : 177 – Which of the following is characteristic feature of Le Fort II fracture
Options:
1) The fracture line runs through the root of the nose, lacrimal bone, floor of orbit, upper
part of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plates
2) The fracture line runs above and parallel to the palate and crosses lower part of nasal
septum, maxillary antra and the pterygoid plates
3) Complete separation of the facial bones from the cranial bones
4) Isolated fracture of orbital floor
Correct Answer: 1) The fracture line runs through the root of the nose, lacrimal bone,
floor of orbit, upper part of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plates
Q. No. : 178 – Kehr’s sign is a classical feature of
Options:
1) Rupture of liver
2) Acute pancreatitis
3) Acute intestinal obstruction
4) Rupture of spleen
Correct Answer: 4) Rupture of spleen
Q. No. : 179 – Which of the following medical sign is observed in Latent Tetany
Options:
1) Trousseau’s sign
2) Pratt’s sign
3) Blumberg’s sign
4) Fox’s sign
Correct Answer: 1) Trousseau’s sign
Q. No. : 180 – Among the following which is not the feature of Paget’s disease of Breast
Options:
1) Itching
2) Unilateral presentation
3) Nipples usually destroyed
4) Underlying lump is usually present
Correct Answer: 1) Itching
Q. No. : 181 – Which among the following BIRADS category is highly suggestive of
malignancy
Options:
1) BIRADS- V
2) BIRADS – III
3) BIRADS-II
4) BIRADS- 0
Correct Answer: 1) BIRADS- V
Q. No. : 182 – 40 year old lady presented with swelling in the right side of the upper part of
the neck below the ear lobule for last 10 years. Swelling is painless and gradually growing.
On examination of the swelling, the surface is smooth, margins are well defined, and is free
from skin and underlying structures. Histologically, architectural pleomorphism is seen.
What is the most probable diagnosis
Options:
1) Lipoma
2) Rhabdomyosarcoma
3) Chronic sialadenitis
4) Mixed parotid tumour
Correct Answer: 4) Mixed parotid tumour
Q. No. : 183 – Radiological ‘Colon cut off sign’ is seen in
Options:
1) Acute intussusception
2) Acute lobar pneumonia
3) Acute pancreatitis
4) Crohn’s disease
Correct Answer: 3) Acute pancreatitis
Q. No. : 184 – Which is the most common site of pressure sore
Options:
1) Sacrum
2) Heel
3) Ischium
4) Greater Trochanter
Correct Answer: 3) Ischium
Q. No. : 185 – Which of the following has drum stick appearance
Options:
1) Clostridium tetani
2) Pneumococcus
3) Streptococcus pneumoniae
4) Staphylococcus epidermis
Correct Answer: 1) Clostridium tetani
Q. No. : 186 – Barium swallow study of a patient suffering from dysphagia revealed Bird’s
beak appearance of esophagus. The most probable diagnosis is
Options:
1) Reflux esophagitis
2) Barrett’s esophagus
3) Hiatus hernia
4) Achalasia cardia
Correct Answer: 4) Achalasia cardia
Q. No. : 187 – Asthma worse in foggy weather and relieved by profuse perspiration, is seen
in
Options:
1) Hypericum
2) Lachesis
3) Sambucus
4) Carbo veg.
Correct Answer: 1) Hypericum
Q. No. : 188 – According to J.T. Kent, one of the best remedies for retention of urine in the
new born is
Options:
1) Chamomilla
2) Podophyllum
3) Aconitum napellus
4) Dulcamara
Correct Answer: 3) Aconitum napellus
Q. No. : 189 – Diarrhoea like dirty water, from fruit or sour krout is seen in
Options:
1) Cinchona
2) Croton tig.
3) Petroleum
4) Bryonia alba
Correct Answer: 4) Bryonia alba
Q. No. : 190 – Which of the following medicine is not included in Nash’s trio of weakness.
Options:
1) Carbo veg.
2) Arsenicum album
3) Muriatic acid
4) Cinchona
Correct Answer: 4) Cinchona
Q. No. : 191 – Coffea cruda belongs to the family of
Options:
1) Liliaceae
2) Papaveraceae
3) Rubiaceae
4) Umbelliferae
Correct Answer: 3) Rubiaceae
Q. No. : 192 – Which remedy has vomiting, bilious with anxiety and weak pulse, every
month after mensturation, cannot lie on right side or back without instantly producing dark
green vomiting.
Options:
1) Argentum nitricum
2) Antimonium tart.
3) Crotalus horridus
4) Carbolic acid
Correct Answer: 3) Crotalus horridus
Q. No. : 193 – This remedy can be given in pertussis , after Drosera has relieved the severe
symptoms
Options:
1) Cina
2) Cuprum met.
3) Corallium rubrum
4) Euphrasia
Correct Answer: 1) Cina
Q. No. : 194 – Red infarct are seen in
Options:
1) Lungs
2) Kidneys
3) Spleen
4) Bones
Correct Answer: 1) Lungs
Q. No. : 195 – Urine examination (Benedict’s test) of a 40 yr old obese male showed a
brick red precipitate. This can result from all except
Options:
1) Diabetes Mellitus
2) Drugs
3) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
4) Cushing’s syndrome
Correct Answer: 3) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Q. No. : 196 – Hemophilia A is characterised by deficiency of
Options:
1) Factor VII
2) Factor VIII
3) Factor IX
4) Factor XI
Correct Answer: 2) Factor VIII
Q. No. : 197 – Serum ferritin is a maker of
Options:
1) Circulating Iron
2) Storage iron
3) Folate
4) Vitamin B12 Levels
Correct Answer: 2) Storage iron
Q. No. : 198 – Sjogren’s syndrome is a chronic disease characterized by which of the
following clinical feature:
Options:
1) Esophageal dysmotility
2) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
3) Widespread damage to small blood vessels
4) Libmann Sachs Endocardititis
Correct Answer: 2) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Q. No. : 199 – Which of the following is the most common cause of Hypothyroidism in
iodine sufficient area?
Options:
1) Iatrogenic hypothyroidism
2) Post-partum thyroiditis
3) Autoimmune thyroiditis
4) Thyroid aplasia
Correct Answer: 3) Autoimmune thyroiditis
Q. No. : 200 – A 20 yr. old female patient presents with pain in thyroid region of the neck
since few days. She gives recent history of mumps. On palpation thyroid is tender and her
thyroid function test reveals raised levels of T3, T4 and low TSH. Iodine uptake is also
low. Probable diagnosis in this case is:
Options:
1) de Quervain’s thyroiditis
2) Silent thyroiditis
3) Primary thyrotoxicosis
4) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Correct Answer: 1) de Quervain’s thyroiditis

September 8, 2021
Copyright 2021 © HomoeoIndia | All rights reserved.
error: Alert: Content is protected !!
X