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AIAPGET 2017 – Question with answer key

QID : 1 – All of the following provide attachment of trapezius muscle except :
Options:
1) First rib
2) Occiput
3) Clavicle
4) Scapula
Correct Answer: First rib
QID : 2 – Sternal angle is the landmark for locating the level of :
Options:
1) Jugular notch
2) Second costal cartilage
3) Xiphoid process
4) Costal margin
Correct Answer: Second costal cartilage
QID : 3 – Interventricular septum of heart is supplied by :
Options:
1) Right coronary artery only
2) Left coronary artery only
3) Anterior part by right coronary artery and posterior part by left coronary artery
4) Anterior part by left coronary artery and posterior part by right coronary artery
Correct Answer: Anterior part by left coronary artery and posterior part by right coronary
artery
QID : 4 – Hepatopancreatic duct opens into which part of duodenum :
Options:
1) First
2) Second
3) Third
4) Fourth
Correct Answer: Second

QID : 5 – Bone devoid of muscular attachments is :
Options:
1) Cuboid
2) Cuneiform
3) Navicular
4) Talus
Correct Answer: Talus
QID : 6 – Both glomerular filtration rate and renal plasma flow are increased by:
Options:
1) Constriction of efferent arteriole
2) Dilatation of efferent arteriole
3) Dilatation of afferent arteriole
4) Hypoproteinaemia
Correct Answer: Dilatation of afferent arteriole
QID : 7 – Isoelectric part of ECG, that represents complete depolarisation of ventricles is:
Options:
1) PR interval
2) QRS complex
3) ST segment
4) T Wave
Correct Answer: ST segment
QID : 8 – Pulse pressure is:
Options:
1) Highest pressure measured in arteries
2) Lowest pressure measured in arteries
3) Decreased with decrease in compliance of arteries
4) Increased with increase in stroke volume
Correct Answer: Increased with increase in stroke volume
QID : 9 – Which of the following statements is true about rods of retina:
Options:
1) Rods are more sensitive to low-intensity light as compared to cons
2) Rods adapt to darkness before cons
3) Rods are most concentrated on fovea
4) Rods are primarily involved in colour vision
Correct Answer: Rods are more sensitive to low-intensity light as compared to cons

QID : 10 – While spinning to the left, the eyes of a dancer snap quickly to the left. This fast eye
movement is known as:
Options:
1) Ataxia
2) Aphasia
3) Nystagmus
4) Apraxia
Correct Answer: Nystagmus
QID : 11 – The protein ‘Caesin’ is present in milk in the form of:
Options:
1) Calcium caesinogenate
2) Lactoalbumin
3) Lactoglobulin
4) Lactose
Correct Answer: Calcium caesinogenate
QID : 12 – Number of years of healthy life lost due to ill-health, disability or early death is
defined as:
Options:
1) HALE (Health Adjusted Life Expectancy)
2) QALY (Quality Adjusted Life Years)
3) DALY (Disability Adjusted Life Years)
4) Sullivan’s Index
Correct Answer: DALY (Disability Adjusted Life Years)
QID : 13 – The standard reference insecticide aerosol (space spray) recommended by the WHO
consists of:
Options:
1) Fenthion
2) Pyrethrum
3) Rotenone
4) Abate
Correct Answer: Pyrethrum

QID : 14 – Which of the following is not a variable in Kuppuswamy’s scale for measuring socioeconomic status?
Options:
1) Education
2) Occupation
3) Family income
4) Type of House
Correct Answer: Type of House
QID : 15 – Indicator of virulence of a disease is:
Options:
1) Incidence rate
2) Prevalence rate
3) Case fatality rate
4) Mortality rate
Correct Answer: Case fatality rate
QID : 16 – Tattoo marks can be recognised even in a decomposed body by the presence of
pigment in:
Options:
1) Epidermis
2) Hair
3) Muscle
4) Lymph node
Correct Answer: Lymph node
QID : 17 – Speed balls are prepared from :
Options:
1) Cannabis
2) Heroine and cocaine
3) Pethidine
4) Lysergic acid Diethylamide (LSD)
Correct Answer: Heroine and cocaine
QID : 18 – A 18-year-old college student presented with erythematous itching lesions on the
wrist. On examination, papules and vesicles were noted in a band like pattern around wrist
along with oozing. The most probable diagnosis is:
Options:
1) Seborrheic dermatitis
2) Herpes simplex
3) Contact dermatitis
4) Urticaria
Correct Answer: Contact dermatitis
QID : 19 – A 15-year old girl gave a history of well-defined small circular pink scaly lesions on
her back followed by widespread papulo squamous eruptions, typically arranged in
symmetrical tree-like pattern on trunk. There was no lymph node enlargement and no oral
lesions. The most probable diagnosis is:
Options:
1) Tinea versicolor
2) Pityriasis rosea
3) Lichen Planus
4) Pemphigus
Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea
QID : 20 – A 56 year old diabetic and hypertensive male suddenly develops weakness of the left
side of his face, along with the weakness of right arm and leg. He also has diplopia on left
lateral gaze. Identify the site of lesion.
Options:
1) Right side of brainstem
2) Left side of brainstem
3) Right cerebral hemisphere
4) Left cerebral hemisphere
Correct Answer: Left side of brainstem
QID : 21 – A 55-year old female presented with repetitive severe pain for brief duration on right
side of face which started after exposure to cold. No other symptoms or physical signs were
present. The most probable diagnosis is –
Options:
1) Temporal arteritis
2) Trigeminal neuralgia
3) Migraine
4) Tension headache
Correct Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
QID : 22 – Which of the following is not the feature of grave’s disease?
Options:
1) Goitre with bruit
2) Sinus bradycardia
3) Exophthalmos
4) Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: Sinus bradycardia

QID : 23 – All of the following are consistent with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy except
Options:
1) Micro aneurysms
2) Blot hemorrhages
3) Cotton wool spots
4) Neovascularization
Correct Answer: Neovascularization
QID : 24 – Bamboo spine is seen in
Options:
1) Ankylosing spondylitis
2) Tuberculosis of spine
3) Paget’s disease
4) Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
QID : 25 – Malabsorption resulting from intolerance to wheat gluten & similar proteins found in
rye & barley is seen in
Options:
1) Short Bowel Syndrome
2) Tropical sprue
3) Coeliac disease
4) Whipple’s disease
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
QID : 26 – Rapid urease test in cases of peptic ulcers is done for the diagnosis of infection with:
Options:
1) Helicobacter pylori
2) Entamoeba histolytica
3) Salmonella typhi
4) Shigella boydii
Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori
QID : 27 – All of the following are causes of clubbing except
Options:
1) Non-small cell lung cancer
2) Fibrosing lung disease
3) Iron Deficiency Anemia
4) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Correct Answer: Iron Deficiency Anemia

QID : 28 – Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to chronic kidney disease
Options:
1) Disturbances of calcium and phosphate metabolism are almost universal in advanced stage
2) Urea and creatinine are raised
3) Anaemia is a rare phenomenon
4) Hypertension and Diabetes mellitus are one of the common causes
Correct Answer: Anaemia is a rare phenomenon
QID : 29 –
Options:
1) a-iii b-ii c-i
2) a-iii b-i c-ii
3) a-ii b-iii c-i
4) a-i b-ii c-iii
Correct Answer: a-iii b-i c-ii
QID : 30 – Which of the following statements is false regarding sickle cell anemia
Options:
1) Autosomal dominant inheritance
2) Painful vaso-occlusive crisis
3) Electrophoresis demonstrates the predominance of HbS
4) Splenic infarction
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant inheritance
QID : 31 – Which of the following is not a feature of nephritic syndrome?
Options:
1) Heamaturia
2) Polyuria
3) Oedema
4) Hypertension
Correct Answer: Polyuria

QID : 32 –
Options:
1) a-iii b-i c-ii d-iv
2) a-ii b-iv c-i d-iii
3) a-iv b-ii c-i d-iii
4) a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv
Correct Answer: a-ii b-iv c-i d-iii
QID : 33 – All of the following are features of lepromatous leprosy except
Options:
1) Wide spread nodules and infiltration
2) Loss of eyebrows
3) Late nerve enlargement & damage
4) Zero Bacterial index
Correct Answer: Zero Bacterial index
QID : 34 – Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is caused by –
Options:
1) Wuchereria bancrofti
2) Plasmodium falciparum
3) Coxiella burnetii
4) Salmonella typhi
Correct Answer: Wuchereria bancrofti
QID : 35 – Which of the following is a major manifestation under Jones criteria for the diagnosis
of rheumatic fever
Options:
1) Fever
2) Raised ESR
3) Leucocytosis
4) Erythema marginatum
Correct Answer: Erythema marginatum

QID : 36 – All of the following are features of lower Motor Neuron disorder except
Options:
1) Fasciculation
2) Flaccidity
3) Spasticity
4) Muscle wasting
Correct Answer: Spasticity
QID : 37 – Exclamation mark hair are pathognomonic sign of:
Options:
1) Hypertrichosis
2) Alopecia areata
3) Androgenic alopecia
4) Leucotrichia
Correct Answer: Alopecia areata
QID : 38 – Which of the following are features of Menopause :
a) Secum FSH and LH:> 40 m IU/ml for 300 consecutive values at weekly interval
b) Vaginal cytology – showing maturation index of at least 10/85/5 suggestive of low estrogen
c) Serum estradiol : < 20 pg/ml
Options:
1) a & b
2) b & c
3) c & d
4) a, b, c
Correct Answer: a, b, c
QID : 39 – Which of the following is invariably the primary site of pelvic tuberculosis :
Options:
1) Ovary
2) Fallopian tube
3) Uterus
4) Cervix
Correct Answer: Fallopian tube
QID : 40 – Retrograde menstruation is a feature of :
Options:
1) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
2) Endometriosis
3) Post Menopausal bleeding
4) Adenomyosis
Correct Answer: Endometriosis

QID : 41 – Which of the following is not a feature of Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS) :
Options:
1) Anovulation
2) Hyperandrogenism
3) Decreased LH : FSH ratio
4) More than 12 peripherally arranged cysts (2-9 mm) in ovaries on sonography
Correct Answer: Decreased LH : FSH ratio
QID : 42 – A 32 year old multipara presented with 32 weeks gestation, mild vaginal bleeding
and abdominal pain. On examination her blood pressure was 150/100 mm Hg; abdomen was
tense, tender and hard. Fetal heart sounds were not audible. On vaginal examination, placenta
was not felt in lower segment. The most likely diagnosis is :
Options:
1) Placenta praevia
2) Abruptio placenta
3) Preterm labour
4) Pyelonephritis
Correct Answer: Abruptio placenta
QID : 43 – Which of the following is a feature of healing by secondary intention?
Options:
1) Apposition of wound edge
2) Minimal surrounding tissue trauma
3) Healing by granulation, contraction and epithelialisation
4) Minimal scar
Correct Answer: Healing by granulation, contraction and epithelialisation
QID : 44 – A 28 year old male presented with a discharging opening in the natal cleft overlying
the coccyx. On examination, hairs were seen projecting from the sinus. Most likely diagnosis is.
Options:
1) Haemorrhoids
2) Anal fissure
3) Pilonidal sinus
4) Hiradenitis suppurativa
Correct Answer: Pilonidal sinus
QID : 45 – A 40-year male presented with sudden onset of epigastric pain radiating to back with
repeated vomiting and hiccoughs. On examination, Pulse was 100 per minute, Blood pressure
90/60 mm of Hg and bluish discoloration of flanks and Umbilicus. The abdomen was distended
and tender.
Which blood investigation should be performed in this case to confirm acute pancreatitis?
Options:
1) Troponin
2) Serum Amylase
3) Creatine phosphokinase test (CPK)
4) Acid phosphatase
Correct Answer: Serum Amylase
QID : 46 – A 40 year old male complains of regurgitation of saliva and ingested but undigested
food A barium radiograph reveals a ‘bird’s beak’ deformity in distal oesophagus . What is the
probable diagnosis?
Options:
1) Achalasia cardia
2) Pyloric stenosis
3) Duodenal atresia
4) Hiatus hernia
Correct Answer: Achalasia cardia
QID : 47 – Which of the following hernias follow the path of the spermatic cord within the
cremasteric muscle?
Options:
1) Femoral hernia
2) Direct inguinal hernia
3) Indirect inguinal hernia
4) Umbilical hernia
Correct Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia
QID : 48 – A 40 year old smoker presented with pain in right lower limb aggravated on walking
and feels better by rest. On examination, limb becomes pale on elevation and changes to red
when the limb is allowed to hang down.
The pulsations in right dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial artery were not felt. The most
probable diagnosis is:
Options:
1) Peripheral vascular disease
2) Spinal Stenosis
3) Deep vein thrombosis
4) Spondylolisthesis
Correct Answer: Peripheral vascular disease
QID : 49 – Which of the following statements is not a feature of Fallot’s Tetralogy?
Options:
1) Atrial Septal Defect
2) Overriding aorta
3) Pulmonary stenosis
4) Right ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: Atrial Septal Defect
QID : 50 – All are the components of Acute inflammation except
Options:
1) Dilation of small vessels
2) Liberation of cytokines
3) Decreased permeability of micro vasculature
4) Emigration of the leucocytes from micro circulation
Correct Answer: Decreased permeability of micro vasculature
QID : 51 – Which of the following is a gram positive Bacterial infection?
Options:
1) Gonorrhoea
2) Plague
3) Chancroid
4) Anthrax
Correct Answer: Anthrax
QID : 52 – The first stage of plasmodium in human blood cell characterized by single chromatin
mass is
Options:
1) Sporozoite
2) Merozoite
3) Trophozoite
4) Schizont
Correct Answer: Trophozoite
QID : 53 – Which of the following statements is true for atheromatous plaque
Options:
1) Stable plaques have thin fibrous cap
2) Unstable plaques have dense fibrous cap
3) Unstable plaques have minimal lipid accumulation
4) Unstable plaques have large lipid cores
Correct Answer: Unstable plaques have large lipid cores
QID : 54 – Macro-ovalocytes is a feature of –
Options:
1) Iron deficiency anemia
2) Megaloblastic anemia
3) Polycythemia
4) Thrombocy topenia
Correct Answer: Megaloblastic anemia
QID : 55 – Which type of emphysema is associated with Alpha-I Antitrypsin deficiency?
Options:
1) Centriacinar
2) Panacinar
3) Distal acinar
4) Irregular
Correct Answer: Panacinar
QID : 56 –
Options:
1) a – ii b – i c – iv d – iii
2) a – iv b – ii c – iii d – i
3) a – iii b – iv c – ii d – i
4) a – iii b – i c – ii d – iv
Correct Answer: a – iii b – iv c – ii d – i
QID : 57 –
Options:
1) a – ii b – i c – iii
2) a – i b – iii c – ii
3) a – iii b – i c – ii
4) a – iii b – ii c – i
Correct Answer: a – iii b – i c – ii
QID : 58 – Vomiting with convulsive gagging and inexpressible pain after laparotomy is an
indication of the following medicines.
a) Bismuth
b) Symphytum
c) Staphysagria
d) Nux vomica
Options:
1) a,b,c,
2) a,c,d
3) a,b,d
4) b,c,d
Correct Answer: a,c,d
QID : 59 – The sensation as if anus is open, is present in:
Options:
1) Lachesis
2) Phosphorus
3) Causticum
4) Nitric acid
Correct Answer: Phosphorus
QID : 60 – The symptom “Constipation always before and during menses” is indicative of –
Options:
1) Ammonium carb
2) Veratrum alb
3) Silicea
4) Bovista
Correct Answer: Silicea
QID : 61 –
Options:
1) a – ii b – i c – iv d – iii
2) a – i b – iii c – ii d – iv
3) a – iii b – ii c – i d – iv
4) a – iv b – iii c – i d – iv
Correct Answer: a – ii b – i c – iv d – iii
QID : 62 – Which of the following statements is false :
a) Cough aggravated by drinking cold water is an indication of Cuprum met.
b) Prolapse of rectum immediately on attempting a passage is characteristic of Ruta
c) Pain from sacrum to pubis in nearly all diseases is a keynote of Sabina
d) Sensitiveness of vagina, rendering coition painful is a feature of Lyssin.
Options:
1) a, b and c
2) a, c and d
3) a only
4) b and d only
Correct Answer: a only
QID : 63 – Headache with sensation as if being lifted up high into the air and great anxiety lest
she falls from this height is symptom of
Options:
1) Bryonia
2) Melilotus
3) Veratrum Viride
4) Hypericum
Correct Answer: Hypericum
QID : 64 – Very forgetful in business, but during sleep dreams of what he had forgotten is a
symptom of –
Options:
1) Selenium
2) Sanicula
3) Sepia
4) Sanguinaria can.
Correct Answer: Selenium

QID : 65 – Fever paroxysm at 7a.m. with great loquacity during chill and heat is characteristic of
Options:
1) Thuja
2) Podophylum
3) Cactus
4) Apis Mell
Correct Answer: Podophylum
QID : 66 – Bubbling sensation in kidneys is a symptom of
Options:
1) Berberis Vulgaris
2) Cantharis
3) Sarsaparilla
4) Terebinth
Correct Answer: Berberis Vulgaris
QID : 67 – Which of the following is false regarding the character of cough
Options:
1) Gurgling sound in Cuprum met
2) Cough dry like a saw driven through a pine board in Spongia
3) Minute gun cough during day in Corallium rubrum
4) Cough in 3 paroxysms in Merc sol.
Correct Answer: Cough in 3 paroxysms in Merc sol.
QID : 68 – Stertorous breathing and hot perspiration all over body except lower limbs are
symptoms of
Options:
1) Nux moschata
2) Gelsemium
3) Opium
4) Antim tart
Correct Answer: Opium
QID : 69 – Constant pain under lower and inner angle of right scapula is a feature of
Options:
1) Phosphorus
2) Chelidonium
3) Gelsemium
4) Sanguinaria can.
Correct Answer: Chelidonium

QID : 70 – Which one of the following does not have the features-Thirst, drinks little and often
is vomited as soon as it reaches the stomach?
Options:
1) Sanicula
2) Arsenic alb
3) Phosphorus
4) Pulsatilla
Correct Answer: Pulsatilla
QID : 71 – Which of the following is a right sided remedy, inimical to Lachesis and antidotes
poisoning with Rhus and stings of insects
Options:
1) Apis mell
2) Lycopodium
3) Ammonium carb
4) Arnica montana
Correct Answer: Ammonium carb
QID : 72 – Ignatia is incompatible with all of the following except
Options:
1) Coffea
2) Nux vomica
3) Natrum mur
4) Tabacum
Correct Answer: Natrum mur
QID : 73 – Impotence : with relaxed penis with sexual desire and excitement is found in all
EXCEPT
Options:
1) Caladium
2) Lycopodium
3) Selenium
4) Cantharis
Correct Answer: Cantharis

QID : 74 –
Options:
1) a – ii b –i c – iv d – iii
2) a – i b – ii c – iii d – iv
3) a – iii b – i c – iv d – ii
4) a – iv b – ii c – i d – iv
Correct Answer: a – ii b –i c – iv d – iii
QID : 75 – Which of the following medicines is especially adapted to complaints of first and
second childhood, the psoric or tubercular
Options:
1) Graphites
2) Baryta Carb
3) Sepia
4) Conium
Correct Answer: Baryta Carb
QID : 76 – Change of remedy is recommended when
Options:
1) Symptoms change and patient is not improving
2) Case is following Hering’s direction of cure
3) Homoeopathic aggravation
4) Symptoms change and patient is improving
Correct Answer: Symptoms change and patient is not improving
QID : 77 – Hahnemann has recommended palliative treatment in which of the following
conditions.
Options:
1) Sudden accidents with danger to life
2) Dysmenorrhea
3) True chronic diseases
4) Indisposition
Correct Answer: Sudden accidents with danger to life
QID : 78 – In a patient suffering from recurrent attacks of allergic rhinitis, the chronic symptoms
are expressed most clearly.
Options:
1) During acute attack
2) At the end of acute attack
3) During indisposition
4) At beginning of acute attack
Correct Answer: At the end of acute attack
QID : 79 – Apparent symptoms caused by excess of homoeopathic medicine during
administration of indicated medicine in Fifty millesimal scale potency are known as :
Options:
1) Schein – Symptome
2) Accidental Symptom
3) Pathognomonic Symptom
4) Accessory miasm
Correct Answer: Schein – Symptome
QID : 80 – Law of minimum is NOT APPLICABLE in homoeopathic treatment of
Options:
1) Latent psora
2) Secondary stage of syphilis miasma
3) Primary stage of psora
4) Pseudo-psora
Correct Answer: Primary stage of psora
QID : 81 – Kent’s EIGHTH observation highlights concept of :
Options:
1) Tautopathy
2) Idiosyncrasy
3) Palliation
4) Doctrine of signature
Correct Answer: Idiosyncrasy
QID : 82 – Which of the following does not belong to the class of chronic diseases
Options:
1) One sided diseases
2) Indisposition
3) Mental & Emotional diseases
4) Intermittent diseases
Correct Answer: Indisposition
QID : 83 – Doctrine of vital force was introduced in which edition of Organon of Medicine
Options:
1) Second
2) Fourth
3) Fifth
4) Sixth
Correct Answer: Fifth
QID : 84 – Fish brine odour is characteristic of which miasm
Options:
1) Sycosis
2) Psora
3) Pseudo psora
4) Syphilis
Correct Answer: Sycosis
QID : 85 – Alternation of Rhus tox and Bryonia was done by Hahnemann in epidemic of :
Options:
1) Measles
2) Scarlet fever
3) Typhus
4) Cholera
Correct Answer: Typhus
QID : 86 –
Options:
1) a – ii b – iii c – i
2) a – i b – ii c – iii
3) a – iii b – i c – ii
4) a – ii b – ii c – iii
Correct Answer: a – ii b – iii c – i
QID : 87 – In Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book, rubric “Eyes protruding” is found
under which section of parts of body & organs :
Options:
1) Eyes
2) Face
3) Vision
4) Mouth
Correct Answer: Face
QID : 88 – In Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics & Repertory, rubric “Alcoholism” is found
under which section :
Options:
1) Mind
2) Sensation & complaints in general
3) Circulation
4) Condition of aggravation & amelioration in general
Correct Answer: Mind
QID : 89 – In which section of Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics & Repertory will you find
the rubric “Hair falling out entire body”
Options:
1) Genitalia
2) Condition of aggravation & ameliortion in general
3) Sweat
4) Skin
Correct Answer: Skin
QID : 90 – In which section of BBCR is mentioned rubric “Uric Acid diathesis”
Options:
1) Lower Extremities
2) Urinary organs
3) Upper Extremities
4) Condition of aggravation & amelioration in general
Correct Answer: Condition of aggravation & amelioration in general
QID : 91 – “Muscae Volitantes” is found in which section of Kent repertory:
Options:
1) Head
2) Vision
3) Generalities
4) Extremities
Correct Answer: Vision
QID : 92 – Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gentry’s Concordance Repertory:
Options:
1) It has 2 volumes
2) It belongs class of regional clinical repertory
3) The symptoms are arranged in alphabetic order under each chapter
4) It is most useful for systematic repertorization of a case
Correct Answer: The symptoms are arranged in alphabetic order under each chapter
QID : 93 – Which of the following repertories is based on philosophical concept of particular to
generals :
Options:
1) Kent’s Repertory
2) Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book
3) Minton’s Uterine Therepeutics
4) The Rheumatic Remedies by H.A. Roberts
Correct Answer: Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book
QID : 94 – “Parotid Glands” is found in which section of BBCR
Options:
1) Mouth
2) Face
3) Ears
4) Neck and External throat
Correct Answer: Ears
QID : 95 – Which of the following is TRUE regarding Jahr’s Symptom Repertory
Options:
1) The first edition was Published in 1832
2) First edition had six volumes
3) Boenninghausen’s evaluation was adopted in its fourth edition
4) It is also known as Repertory of Anti-psorics
Correct Answer: Boenninghausen’s evaluation was adopted in its fourth edition
QID : 96 – A crude mixture of mineral or organic material (i.e. plant or animal) in a thin pasty
state, a dough pasty mass is known as: –
Options:
1) Menstrum
2) Mother Tincture
3) Magma
4) Merc
Correct Answer: Magma
QID : 97 – The science or the subject of the power or effects of drugs and medicines on human
beings in health and disease and dealing with the dynamic action of drugs is known as:
Options:
1) Pharmacophore
2) Pharmacognosy
3) Pharmaconomy
4) Pharmacodyn-amics
Correct Answer: Pharmacodyn-amics
QID : 98 –
Options:
1) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d –
2) a – iii, b – I, c – ii, d – iv
3) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i
4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d- iv
Correct Answer: a – iii, b – I, c – ii, d – iv
QID : 99 – All of the following are prepared by trituration process except:
Options:
1) Lachesis
2) Petroleum
3) Graphites
4) Cinchona
Correct Answer: Cinchona
QID : 100 – The first volume of Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia of India was published in:
Options:
1) 1971
2) 1974
3) 1976
4) 1978
Correct Answer: 1971

08/09/2021

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