UPSC MEDICAL OFFICER 2020 – question with Answer

1. Pernicious anaemia is:

(a) Microcytic normochromic

(b) Microcytic hypochromic

(c) Macrocytic normochromic

(d) Macrocytic hypochromic

Answer: (c)

2. Blackwater fever is a complication of infection with:

(a) Plasmodium vivax

(b) Plasmodium falciparum

(c) Plamodium malaraia

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

3. Which one of the following is correct in respect of Raynaud’s disease?

(a) Women are affected five times more often than men

(b) Fingers are involved more frequently than toes

(c) Most patients experience only mild or infrequent episodes

(d) Results of physical examination are often entirely normal

Answer: (No Answer)

4. The clinical variety of psoriasis which is most common in children and young adults is:

(a) Palmoplentar psoriasis

(b) Plaque-type psoriasis

(c) Guttate psoriasis

(d) Pustular psoriasis

Answer: (c)

5. Aschoff’s nodules are seen in:

(a) Subacute bacterial endocarditis

(b) Libman sacks endocarditis

(c) Rheumatic carditis

(d) Non-bacterial endocarditis

Answer: (c)

6. All are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis EXCEPT:

(a) Malignancy

(b) Pregnancy and postpartum

(c) Age less than 60 years

(d) High dose oestrogen oral contraceptive pill

Answer: (c)

7. A patient presents with arthritis, hyperpigmentation and hypogonadism. The likely diagnosis is:

(a) Haemochromatosis

(b) Tumor lung

(c) Wilson’s disease

(d) Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer: (a)

8. Hypoglycaemia is a recognised feature of all EXCEPT:

(a) Uremia

(b) Acromegaly

(c) Addisons disease

(d) Hepatocellular failure

Answer: (b)

9. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of multiple myeloma?

(a) Hypercalcemia

(b) Hyperviscosity

(c) Anaemia

(d) Elevated alkaline phosphatase

Answer: (d)

10. Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies EXCEPT:

(a) Hodgkin’s disease

(b) Non Hodgkins lymphoma

(c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

(d) Multiple myeloma

Answer: (d)

11. The diagnostic test with best sensitivity and specificity to diagnose chronic pancreatitis is:

(a) Abdominal CT scan

(b) Abdominal radiograph

(c) Abdominal ultrasound

(d) Secretion test

Answer: (d)

12. Radiographic ‘string sign’ is a feature of:

(a) Diverticular disease

(b) Ulcerative colitis

(c) Crohn’s disease

(d) Acute Intestinal obstruction

Answer: (c)

13. A booming ‘pistol-shot’ sound heard over the formal arteries is found in:

(a) Mitral stenosis

(b) Mitral regurgitation

(c) Aortic regurgitation

(d) Aortic stenosis

Answer: (c)

14. Detection of which autoantibody is considered as the best screening test for SLE?

(a) Anti-dsDNA

(b) Anti-Ro

(c) Antinuclear antibody

(d) Anti-RNP

Answer: (c)

15. All are radiographic features of Osteoarthritis EXCEPT:

(a) Narrowed joint space

(b) Osteophytes

(c) Subchondral bone sclerosis

(d) Subchondral bone osteopenia

Answer: (d)

16. The hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is:

(a) Microaneurysms

(b) Haemorrhage

(c) Cotton-wool spots

(d) Neovascularisation

Answer: (d)

17. In cholinergic urticaria the pruritic wheals develop after exposure to:

(a) Hot bath

(b) Cold bath

(c) Pressure

(d) Wheat protein

Answer: (a)

18. The ‘tram tracks’ sign on X ray is found in patients of:

(a) Bronchial asthma

(b) Bronchiectasis

(c) Chronic bronchitis

(d) Silicosis

Answer: (b)

19. Neurologic symptoms produced by an elevation of the body’s core temperature are features of:

(a) Systemic sclerosis

(b) Multiple sclerosis

(c) Systematic lupus erythematosus

(d) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Answer: (b)

20. Pel-Ebstein fever is seen in:

(a) Burkitt’s lymphoma

(b) Mantle cell lymphoma

(c) Hodgkin’s lymphoma

(d) Follicular lymphoma

Answer: (c)

21. The modified Child-Pugh classification is used for staging patients of:

(a) Pancreatic disorders

(b) Liver disorders

(c) Stomach disorders

(d) Intestinal disorders

Answer: (b)

22. The antimitochondrial antibodies are found in majority of patients of:

(a) Alchoholic cirrhosis

(b) Primary biliary cirrhosis

(c) Primary sclerosing cholangitis

(d) Cardiac cirrhosis

Answer: (b)

23. ‘Monday chest tightness’ is a characteristic feature of:

(a) Silicosis

(b) Asbestosis

(c) Byssinosis

(d) Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis

Answer: (c)

24. The joint which is NOT commonly involved in patients of Rheumatoid Arthritis is:

(a) Metacarpophalangeal joint

(b) Proximal interphalangeal joint

(c) Wrist joint

(d) Distal interphalangeal joint

Answer: (d)

25. All of the following structures contribute to joint pain in osteoarthritis EXCEPT:

(a) Subchondral bone

(b) Joint capsule

(c) Joint cartilage

(d) Muscles

Answer: (c)

26. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct in respect of Meningococcal infection?

(a) Asymptomatic carrier state does not exist

(b) A petechial rash develops in more than 80% of the patients

(c) Absence of meningism in a case of meningococcal septicaemia is associated with poor outcome

(d) Most deaths from meningococcal meningitis alone are associated with raised intracranial pressure

Answer: (a)

27. Ischaemic cerebral stroke is produced by all of the following EXCEPT:

(a) Polycythemia

(b) Severe dehydration of acute onset

(c) Dissecting aortic Aneurysm

(d) Deep Vein Thrombosis

Answer: (d)

28. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct in respect of cardiac murmur?

(a) The systolic murmur of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy decreases in intensity during valsalva maneuver

(b) The murmur of mitral regurgitation is best heard over the cardiac apex

(c) The murmur of mitral stenosis is low-pitched with presystolic accentuation

(d) Austin Flint murmur in severe Aortic Regurgitation is low-pitched diastolic murmur

Answer: (a)

29. Gottron’s sign is found in patients of:

(a) Psoriasis

(b) Lichen planus

(c) Dermatomyositis

(d) Discoid lupus erythematosus

Answer: (c)

30. The Modified Epley maneuver is used for treatment of:

(a) Vestibular migraine

(b) Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

(c) Vestibular schwannoma

(d) Psychosomatic vertigo

Answer: (b)

31. The medicine that does NOT belong to Compositae family is:

(a) Calendula

(b) Cina

(c) Aloes

(d) Arnica

Answer: (c)

32. “Urticaria all over the body without fever”, is one of the red line symptoms of:

(a) Merc.sol.

(b) Sulphur

(c) Apis mel.

(d) Dulcamara

Answer: (d)

33. “Backache relieved by lying on back”, is the characteristic symptom of:

(a) Lycopodium

(b) Ruta graveolens

(c) Aesculus hip.

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

34. “Rheumatism alternates with gastric symptoms one appearing in the fall and another in the spring” , is one of the characteristic symptoms of:

(a) Kali bich

(b) Lycopodium

(c) Nux vom.

(d) Ignatia

Answer: (a)

35. “Hoarse; voice deep, harsh; sounds like a trumpet; ‘ basso profundo’ ” , is present under:

(a) Causticum

(b) Argentum nitricum

(c) Ignatia

(d) Verbascum

Answer: (d)

36. Which drug is known as Dog’s mercury?

(a) Mephitis

(b) Mercurialis perennis

(c) Menyanthes

(d) Melilotus

Answer: (b)

37. “Neuralgia of testicles with nausea aggravation at night”, is a symptom of:

(a) Hamamelis

(b) Ferrum metallicum

(c) Clematis

(d) Arsenic album

Answer: (a)

38. ‘Forget me not’ is common name of which one of following drugs?

(a) Myosotis

(b) Myrica

(c) Mygale Lasiodora

(d) Myristica Sebifera

Answer: (a)

39. “Swelling in bend of knee”, is a symptom of which drug?

(a) Magnesium carb.

(b) Magnesium phos.

(c) Colocynth

(d) Ruta

Answer: (a)

40. “Throbbing headache in the forehead, just above the root of the nose”, is a symptom of:

(a) Arsenic alb.

(b) Aconite nap.

(c) Arnica mom.

(d) Belladonna

Answer: (a)

 41. “Nose stuffs up when there is a cold rain”, is a symptom of:

(a) Sarasaparilla

(b) Dulcamara

(c) Lycopodium

(d) Silicea

Answer: (b)

42. “Sensation of something alive in abdomen and stomach”, is a symptom of:

(a) Chamomilla

(b) Crocus sativus

(c) Arsenic.alb.

(d) Thuja oc.

Answer: (b)

43. “Antidotes ill-effects of eating shellfish”, is a symptom of:

(a) Urtica urens

(b) Apis mel.

(c) Cantharis

(d) Causticum

Answer: (a)

44. “After lying down in the evening, he lies awake till late at night and cannot go to sleep” , is a syptom of :

(a) Nat.mur.

(b) Rhus tox

(c) Spigelia

(d) Hamamelis

Answer: (c)

45. Complementary relationship is found in:

(a) Aconitum napellus-Sulphur

(b) Mercurius solubilis-Silicea

(c) Causticum-Phosphorus

(d) Nux vomica-Camphora

Answer: (a)

46. “Loss of smell and taste”, is a symptom of:

(a) Hyoscyamus

(b) Aurum metallicum

(c) Kali bichromicum

(d) Hepar sulphur

Answer: (a)

47. “Involuntary evacuation of faeces in sleep”, is a symptom of:

(a) Aconite nap.

(b) Bellis per.

(c) Arnica mont.

(d) Hypericum

Answer: (c)

48. “The borders of the eyelids are painful on moving as if they were dry, and rubbed upon the eyeballs”, is a symptom of:

(a) Aconite

(b) Arsenic alb.

(c) Bellis p.

(d) Murex

Answer: (b)

49. “Vertigo on quickly turning the head to left side specially”, is one of the characteristic symptoms of:

(a) Pulsatilla

(b) Silicea

(c) Colocynthis

(d) Thuja

Answer: (c)

50. “Stools are knotty like sheep’s dung, crumbling at the verge of anus”, is a symptom of:

(a) Magnesia phos.

(b) Calcarea phos.

(c) Opium

(d) Magnesia muriatica

Answer: (d)

51. Consider the following statements:

1. Phosphorus has craving for salty dishes

2. Causticum has the symptom of paralysis of single part

3. Alumina has alternate diarrhoea and constipation

4. Ruta has the symptom of bad effects of injury to periosteum

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (c)

52. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: Medorrhinum is gonorrhoeal preparation

(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true but Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false

(d) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true

Answer: (c)

53. “Skin itching when undressing, uncovering or exposure to cold air”, is a symptom of:

(a) Ruta graveolens

(b) Rheum

(c) Tellurium

(d) Rumex crispus

Answer: (d)

54. Which of the following features confirm a Belladonna patient?

1. Sudden and violent onset

2. Violent and furious mania

3. Delirium, nonsense, with eyes open

4. Cobweb, sensation of face

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (c)

55. Consider the following symptoms:

1. Shining, glazed appearance of diphtheritic deposits chancres and ulcers

4. Violent palpitations while lying on left side but feels better while lying on right side

Which of the above symptoms is/are found in Lac.can. ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 only

Answer: (b)

56. Tuberculinum has the following characteristics features:

1. Early morning diarrhoea

2. Tubercular deposit begins in the apex of lungs, especially the left

3. Crops of boils containing green foetid pus; appear successively on nose

4. Changeable symptoms

Which of the above symptoms are also found in sulphur?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

57. Consider the following symptoms:

1. Can pass stool better in standing position

2. Symptoms aggravated in damp cold weather

3. Undue sympathy for the sufferings of others

4. Cough with roughness of throat which is ameliorated by drinking hot water

Which of the above features is/are found in Causticum?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (a)

58. Consider the following symptoms:

1. Extreme thirst in dropsy, diabetes and chronic diarrhoea but no thirst in fever

2. Nausea more or less constant with nearly all the sufferings

3. Haemorrhage from every mucus outlet

4. Debility out of proportion to the degree of sufferings

Which of the above features are found in Acetic Acid?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (b)

59. Nessler’s reagent is added to check the impurity of which substance in water?

(a) Sulphate

(b) Ammonia

(c) Calcium

(d) Chloride

Answer: (b)

60. Consider the following in respect of LM potencies:

1. Aggravation is minimum or absent

2. Can be repeated more frequently

3. Effects of the medicine are ascertained earlier

4. The easiest method of preparation

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b)

61. Which actions of the medicines are commonly recorded during drug proving?

(a) Secondary actions

(b) Counter actions

(c) Curative actions

(d) Primary actions

Answer: (d)

62. Consider the following factors:

1. Chilly patient

2. Worse in morning

3. Relief during menstruation

4. Relief during rapid motion

Which of the above factors is/are true with regard to PSORA?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

63. Consider the following:

1. The Doctrine of analogy

2. The concept of grand generalisation

3. Concomitant symptoms

Which of the above concepts were advocated by Von Boenninghausen?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (c)

64. Consider the following:

1. Gentle

2. Effective

3. Rapid

4. Permanent

Which of the above qualities are true for highest ideal of cure, included in aphorism-2 of Organon of Medicine?

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

65. When the dose of the first medicine ceases to have a beneficial effect, a new examination must be instituted to know the:

(a) Auxiliary symptoms

(b) Local disease

(c) Accessory symptoms

(d) Status Morbi

Answer: (d)

66. ‘All the things that are predicated of any given organ are things in particular. If you examine any part alone, you are only examining the particulars.’ The statement was given by:

(a) Hahnemann

(b) J T Kent

(c) Boger

(d) T L Bradford

Answer: (b)

67. The quality of ‘being pre-eminently trustworthy and conscientious’ of the Homeopathic drug prover is explained in which edition of Organon of Medicine?

(a) Second Edition

(b) Third Edition

(c) Fifth Edition

(d) Sixth Edition

Answer: (d)

68. According to aphorism 143 of Organon of Medicine, a true materia medica is a collection of:

(a) Drugs proven by ideal provers only

(b) Drugs derived from plant kingdom only

(c) Real, pure, reliable modes of action of simple medicinal substances

(d) Action of alkaloid in medicinal substances on vital organs only

Answer: (c)

69. According to Homoeopathy, the process by which the medicinal properties, that are latent in natural substances in their crude state, become aroused and enabled to act in almost spiritual manner on life, is known as:

(a) Dynamization

(b) Dilution

(c) Ultradilution

(d) Succussion

Answer: (a)

70. The importance of ‘Massage’ has been mentioned in the Organon of Medicine, Sixth Edition in aphorism number:

(a) 290

(b) 284

(c) 286

(d) 291

Answer: (a)

71. ‘Collection of symptoms by drug proving’ and ‘Matching proving symptoms with patient’s symptoms’ are examples of:

(a) Inductive logic

(b) Deductive logic

(c) Deductive logic and Inductive logic respectively

(d) Inductive logic and deductive logic respectively

Answer: (d)

72. The ‘homoeopathic aggravation’ as defined by Dr Hahnemann, was renamed and reinterpreted by many medical scientists and given variable names. The name assigned by Dr J H Allen to Dr Hahnemann’s homoeopathic aggravation is:

(a) Rebound phenomenon

(b) Belated aggravation

(c) Retrograde metamorphosis

(d) Rebound aggravation

Answer: (c)

73. In the preface to the fifth edition of Organon, Dr Samuel Hahnemann mentions ‘Homoeopathy avoids everything in the slightest degree enfeebling’, which refers to:

(a) External means of treatment

(b) Idiosyncracy

(c) Homeopathic aggravation

(d) Genus epidemicus

Answer: (a)

74. ‘The cure of an old psora that has been deprived of eruptions whether it may be latent and quiescent or already broken out into chronic diseases can never be accomplished with sulphur alone’. This was written by Dr Hahnemann in:

(a) Organon of Medicine

(b) Materia Medica Pura

(c) The Chronic Diseases

(d) Lesser Writing

Answer: (c)

75. In emotional diseases which are of recent origin and have not made very great inroads on the corporeal state, Dr Hahnemann advises that the following measures should be taken initially for relief:

(a) Psoric treatment

(b) Appropriate diet and regimen

(c) Wait and watch

(d) Psychical remedies-friendly exhortations, sensible advice etc

Answer: (d)

76. According to Dr Hahnemann, substances belonging to the animal and vegetable kingdom possess their medicinal properties most perfectly:

(a) By boiling, slewing, toasting

(b) By fermentation

(c) In their raw state

(d) By pickling

Answer: (c)

77. The desire of the patient affected by an acute disease with regard to food and drink is generally considered to be:

(a) Nutritious relief

(b) Palliative relief

(c) Curative

(d) Medicinal relief

Answer: (b)

78. “The apparent symptoms caused by the excess of the homoeopathic medicine, will soon disappear and leave undisturbed health in its wake”. These are:

(a) Auxiliary symptoms

(b) Schein symptoms

(c) Accessory symptoms

(d) Altered symptoms

Answer: (b)

79. The power of magnet for healing purposes; with their positive effects in the Materia Medica Pura; have been described by Dr Hahnemann in the Sixth Edition of Organon in Aphorism number:

(a) 287

(b) 288

(c) 290

(d) 291

Answer: (a)

80. According to Dr Kent, there can be 6-types of second prescriptions. Which one out of the following is NOT a second prescription?

(a) Change of plan of treatment

(b) Cognate to first prescription

(c) Antidote of first prescription

(d) Acute remedy of first prescription

Answer: (d)

81. Who criticised Boenninghausen that he has made too broad application of principle of concomitants?

(a) Boger

(b) Lippe

(c) Jahr

(d) Hering

Answer: (d)

82. According to Dr J T Kent, after the first prescription “ A prolong aggravation and final decline of the patient” indicates:

1. The first prescription was wrong

2. The anti-psoric was too deep, which has established destruction

3. Vital reaction was impossible and the case is incurable

Which of the above factors is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b)

83. What does the word ‘quando’ mean in reportorial language?

(a) Time

(b) Seat of Disease

(c) Cause

(d) Personality

Answer: (a)

84. In which Section of Kent’s Repertory is the rubric “ Involuntary Urination and Stool” found?

(a) Bladder

(b) Urethra

(c) Stools

(d) Rectum

Answer: (d)

85. Remedy for “Aversion to Onion” in Kent’s Repertory is:

(a) Veratrum album

(b) Sabadilla

(c) Thuja occidentalis

(d) Sulphur

Answer: (b)

86. The indicative medicine against the rubric ‘Squanders money’ in Mind Chapter of Dr Kent’s Repertory is:

(a) Nux vomica

(b) Lycopodium

(c) Veratrum album

(d) Nat mur.

Answer: (c)

87. Who contributed the components of a complete symptom-Location, Sensation, Modality and concomitant?

(a) C M F Von Boenninghausen

(b) Richard Hughes

(c) Carol Dunham

(d) Adolph Von Lippe

Answer: (a)

88. ‘Stammering’ is found in which chapter of Kent’s Repertory?

(a) Larynx and Trachea

(b) Mouth

(c) Mind

(d) Thorax

Answer: (b)

89. ‘Talking, Sleep in’ is found under which chapter in Kent’s Repertory?

(a) Mouth

(b) Generalities

(c) Throat

(d) Mind

Answer: (d)

90. The remedy for sweat on Sternum in Kent’s Repertory is:

(a) Silicea

(b) Calc.carb.

(c) Sulphur

(d) Graphites

Answer: (d)

91. Medicine for ‘Aura begins from heart’in Kent’s Repertory is:

(a) Bufo rana

(b) Calcarea ars.

(c) Digitalis

(d) Crataegus oxy.

Answer: (b)

92. Anaemia is found under which chapter in Kent’s Repertory?

(a) Chest

(b) Generalities

(c) Mouth

(d) Extremities

Answer: (b)

93. The medicine found under the rubric ‘Benevolence’ in Kent’s Repertory is:

(a) Aconite nap.

(b) Belladonna

(c) Coffea cruda

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

94. The remedy for ‘Lump, sensation in rectum not ameliorated by stool’ in Kent’s Repertory is:

(a) Nux vomica

(b) Aesculus hip.

(c) Sepia

(d) Alumina

Answer: (c)

95. ‘Sweat, axilla’ is given in which chapter of Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics & Repertory?

(a) Chest

(b) Sweat

(c) Axilla

(d) Sensation and complaints

Answer: (a)

96. The indicated remedy on ‘Fissures in Larynx’ in Kent’s Repertory is:

(a) Acid nit.

(b) Silicea

(c) Bufo rana

(d) Thuja

Answer: (c)

97. In construction of Boenninghausen Therapeutic Pocket Book, which of the following books were incorporated?

1. Repertory of Antipsoric Medicines

2. Repertory of the Medicines which are not antipsoric

3. Attempt of showing the relative kinship of Homoeopathic Medicines

4. Repertory of comparative Materia Medica

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

98. ‘Reflexes, diminished’ is mentioned in the Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics & Repertory in the Chapter:

(a) Aggravation and Amelioration in General

(b) Concordances

(c) Sensation and Complaints in General

(d) Sensorium

Answer: (c)

99. The indicated remedy against ‘White mucus in Stool like little pieces of popped corn’ in Kent’s Repertory is:

(a) Cina

(b) Colchicum

(c) Borax

(d) Kali chl.

Answer: (a)

100. The foundation of Boenninghausen Therapeutic Pocket Book is the:

(a) Doctrine of Concomitance

(b) Doctrine of Relationship of Remedies

(c) Doctrine of Clinical symptoms

(d) Doctrine of Key note symptoms

Answer: (a)

101. Percolation is used for the extraction of which type of drug substances?

(a) Dried vegetables only

(b) Animal drug substances only

(c) Exotic plants

(d) Dried vegetables as well as animal drug substances

Answer: (d)

102. Nux vomica is prepared from seeds. It belongs to family:

(a) Loganiaceae

(b) Solanaceae

(c) Ranunculaceae

(d) Papavelarea

Answer: (a)

103. Aegle folia belongs to plant source, the description and details for this drug includes:

1. Synonym bael

2. Family Compositaceae

3. It is distributed in India

4. Part used for its preparation is whole plant

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b)

104. Which medicine after preparation should be stored in glycerine?

(a) Merc.sol.

(b) Petroleum

(c) Lachesis

(d) Picric acid

Answer: (c)

105. What is the common name for the drug Lycopodium clavatum?

(a) Foxglove

(b) Club moss

(c) Broom

(d) Daffodil

Answer: (b)

106.Which one of the following vehicles (dry) is NOT used for potentisation?

(a) Sugar of milk

(b) Cane sugar

(c) Globules

(d) Grape sugar

Answer: (c)

107. Which one of the following is NOT correct with regard to preservation of potentised medicines?

(a) Bottles should be filled entirely full

(b) They should be preserved in a dry cool place

(c) Coloured bottles should be avoided

(d) If the liquid or solid potentised medicines change their normal colours, they should be rejected immediately

Answer: (a)

108. Which one of the following is an example of Exanthem Nosode?

(a) Psorinum

(b) Anthracinum

(c) Tuberculinum

(d) Carcinosinum

Answer: (b)

109. In reference to habit and environment, higher potencies are best suited to:

(a) Those who sleep little

(b) Those persons engaged in highly intellectual and mental work

(c) Those whose food is coarse

(d) Idiots, imbeciles and the deaf and dumb

Answer: (b)

110. Which one of the following is NOT correct regarding minimum dose?

(a) It is not beneficial to the patient

(b) It is curative in action

(c) It is not toxic in nature

(d) Its action has been proved

Answer: (a)

111. In case of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis the metabolic disturbance is:

(a) Respiratory alkalosis

(b) Metabolic acidosis

(c) Metabolic acidosis with alkaline urine

(d) Metabolic acidosis with paradoxical aciduria

Answer: (d)

112. A two year boy presents with poor urinary stream. The most likely cause is:

(a) Stricture urethra

(b) Neurogenic bladder

(c) Posterior urethral valve

(d) Ureteral calculus

Answer: (c)

113. Bitemporal Hemianopia is seen in:

(a) Occipital lobe tumor

(b) Frontal lobe tumor

(c) Parital lobe tumor

(d) Pituitary tumor

Answer: (d)

114. All of the following are features of Subdural haemorrrhage EXCEPT:

(a) Relatively severe trauma

(b) Lucid internal

(c) Diffuse concave lesion on CT

(d) 50 percent mortality

Answer: (b)

115. The Lachmann Test is the most sensitive test for the evaluation of:

(a) Medial collateral ligament

(b) Lateral collateral ligament

(c) Anterior cruciate ligament

(d) Posterior cruciate ligament

Answer: (c)

116. All of the following are pre-malignant lesions of oral cavity EXCEPT:

(a) Oral candidiasis

(b) Erythroplakia

(c) Leukoplakia

(d) Oral submucosal fibrosis

Answer: (a)

117. The most common cause of cyanosis from a congenital cardiac defect in newborn period is:

(a) Tetralogy of fallot

(b) Transposition of great vessels

(c) Eisenmenger’s syndrome

(d) Ventricular septal defect

Answer: (b)

118. Calorigenesis is a typical feature of:

(a) Hypothyroidism

(b) Hyperthyroidism

(c) Hypoparathyroidism

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

119. Which of the following are the functions of spinal cord?

1. It gives origin to 31 pairs of spinal nerves

2. It gives origin to autonomic nerves

3. Reflex centre for spinal reflexes

4. Contains lower centres like micturition, defaecation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

120. Thyrotropin releasing hormone is secreted from:

(a) Anterior pituitary

(b) Posterior pituitary

(c) Thyroid gland

(d) Hypothalamus

Answer: (d)

121. Which of the following can cross the cell membrane?

(a) Oxygen

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Alcohols

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

122. The phagocytic cells of the placenta are:

(a) Macrophages

(b) Microglias

(c) Hofbauer cells

(d) Kupffer cells

Answer: (c)

123. Which one of the following is NOT correct about testosterone?

(a) Increases body hair but decreases scalp hair growth

(b) Maintains spermatogenesis, prolongs life of sperms

(c) Decreases protein synthesis, increases protein break down

(d) Causes development of internal and external genitalia in foetus

Answer: (c)

124. Mode of transportation of carbon dioxide in blood is mainly in the form of:

(a) Bicarbonates

(b) Serum globulin

(c) Haemoglobin

(d) Physical solution in plasma

Answer: (a)

125. The endocrine status of ovarian failure is identified by the demonstration of:

(a) Raised serum FSH concentration

(b) Raised serum LH concentration

(c) Raised serum oestradiol levels

(d) Raised serum prolactin levels

Answer: (a)

126. Which one of the following examinations is required for vaginal diseases?

(a) Sigmoidoscopy

(b) Bronchoscopy

(c) Colposcopy

(d) Colonoscopy

Answer: (c)

127. In the mechanism of labor, ‘External Rotation’ is the movement of rotation of head visible externally due to:

(a) Untwisting of the neck sustained during internal rotation

(b) Internal rotation of the shoulders

(c) Exaggerated movement of neck

(d) Bearing down pains

Answer: (b)

128. Which one of the following is the smallest antero-posterior engaging diameter on the fetal skull?

(a) Suboccipito frontal

(b) Occipito frontal

(c) Mento vertical

(d) Submento-bregmatic

Answer: (d)

129. Which one of the following is NOT a criterion for diagnosis of PCOS?

(a) Acanthosis nigricans

(b) Menstrual cycle disturbance

(c) Biochemical hyperandrogenism

(d) Ultrasound detection of polycystic ovaries

Answer: (a)

130. Which one of the following is a main cause of Asherman’s syndrome?

(a) Chronic cervicitis

(b) Hystero salpingo graphy

(c) Fibroid uterus

(d) Endometrial curettage

Answer: (d)

131. The symptom ’During pregnancy, foetus moves too violently’ is given under which one of the following medicines in Allen’s Key notes?

(a) Psorinum

(b) Medorrhinum

(c) Syphilinum

(d) Ambra grisea

Answer: (a)

132. The lipid layer of tear film is secreted by which one of the following glands/cells?

(a) Tarsal gland

(b) Lacrimal gland

(c) Orbital gland

(d) Goblet cells

Answer: (a)

133. Which muscle of the soft palate is supplied by mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve?

(a) Palatoglossus

(b) Palatopharyngeus

(c) Levator veli palatini

(d) Tensor veli palatini

Answer: (d)

134. All are the branches of deep palmar arch EXCEPT:

(a) Palmar metacarpal arteries

(b) Perforating digital arteries

(c) Recurrent branch

(d) Digital arteries

Answer: (d)

135. Which part of the stomach is supplied by the short gastric arteries?

(a) Lesser curvature

(b) Fundus

(c) Pylorus

(d) Pyloric antrum

Answer: (b)

136. Which one of the following muscles has a dual nerve supply?

(a) Adductor brevis

(b) Adductor longus

(c) Adductor magnus

(d) Adductor hallucis

Answer: (c)

137. Which one of the following is NOT correct regarding nucleus pulposus?

(a) It is the central part of the disc

(b) It is hard at birth

(c) It acts as a hydraulic shock absorber

(d) With advancing age the elasticity is much reduced

Answer: (b)

138. Peripheral heart is the name of which muscle?

(a) Involuntary muscle

(b) Intercostal muscle

(c) Soleus muscle

(d) Pectoralis major

Answer: (c)

139. Helicobacter Pylori can tolerate gastric acid due to:

(a) Breakdown of urea by urease

(b) Formation of enzymes other than urease

(c) Remain deep inside the mucous layer

(d) Remain within the muscular contraction

Answer: (a)

140. Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC) is diagnosed by the following tests EXCEPT:

(a) Rabbit ileal loop test

(b) Infant mouse assay

(c) Sereny test

(d) ELISA test

Answer: (c)

141. A female patient developed gangrene in her fingers during winter season. She is instructed to dip her hands in cold water kept in a tumbler. In doing so, she develops cyanosis in her hands. The probable diagnosis is:

(a) Raynaud’s disease

(b) Buerger’s disease

(c) Frost bite

(d) Cyanotic heart disease

Answer: (a)

142. Mycobacterium leprae are found in:

(a) Skin lesions

(b) Nerve lesions

(c) Nasal smears

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

143. Length of foetus after full term gestation is:

(a) 40 cm

(b) 30 cm

(c) 55 cm

(d) 50 cm

Answer: (d)

144. Putrification of the body is due to:

(a) Cl. welchii

(b) E. coli

(c) Streptococci

(d) Air born virus

Answer: (a)

145. Functions of Indian Medical Council are all EXCEPT:

(a) Maintenance of medical register

(b) Derecognition of medical qualification

(c) Exercise of disciplinary control

(d) Recognition of foreign medical graduates

Answer: (c)

146. Administering narcotics or other medications to relieve pain with incidental consequence of causing sufficient respiratory depression to result in patient’s death is termed as:

(a) Voluntary active euthanasia

(b) Involuntary active euthanasia

(c) Indirect euthanasia

(d) Physician assisted suicide

Answer: (c)

147. Which one of the understated areas is identified as major malaria priority area accounting for 80% of incidence?

(a) Forest malaria

(b) Tribal malaria

(c) Urban malaria

(d) Border malaria

Answer: (c)

148. Which one of the morbidity rates is NOT used for assessing ill health in the community?

(a) Incidence and prevalence

(b) Duration of stay in hospital

(c) Full attendance at work or school

(d) Attendance rates at out-patient departments of health centres

Answer: (c)

149. Jones criteria is taken into consideration for diagnosing:

(a) Malaria fever

(b) Rabies

(c) Rheumatic fever

(d) Dengue fever

Answer: (c)

150. The occupational hazard related to bladder cancer is:

(a) Asbestos industry

(b) Working with chromium

(c) Rubber industry

(d) Aniline dye industry

Answer: (d)

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